No. Here the vertex sets of each graph are equal, which is a good start. Also, both graphs have two edges. In the first graph, we have edges \(\{a,b\}\) and \(\{b,c\}\text{,}\) while in the second graph we have edges \(\{a,c\}\) and \(\{c,b\}\text{.}\) Now we do have \(\{b,c\} = \{c,b\}\text{,}\) so that is not the problem. The issue is that \(\{a,b\} \ne \{a,c\}\text{.}\) Since the edge sets of the two graphs are not equal (as sets), the graphs are not equal (as graphs).
in-context